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Earning PDU is not expensive can even be free if you know the following tips:. If you are still at a loss of what to do. I have created a step-by-step guide to help Aspirants like you. Just follow the steps outlined in the Guide and you are ready to get certified. This Guide is created with a view to answer thousands of queries I have got from Aspirants around the world over the past few years. PMP Exam Tips. Performance reporting is a good project management practice and must be carried out on all projects.

Performance reports are produced so they can be added to lessons-learned database, and the future project might benefit. Providing management with information about how effectively the seller is achieving the contractual objectives.

Project managers need to be aware of Student Syndrome. What does that ill nw mean? People go through a learning curve whenever they are engaged in a project.

People start to apply themselves only at the last possible moment before the deadline. People who undertake studies during their professional careers tend to be better project managers. A project manager must stress the importance of collecting and documenting lessons learned through the project lifecycle. One good way to collect this information is during weekly status meetings.

Usually, weekly status meetings, if not managed properly, end up in fire- fighting since most of the time, attention goes to the burning issues. How can you ensure that the lessons-learned gathering does not get missed in such a situation? Add a lessons-learned agenda item. Record the minutes of the meeting. Do not discuss burning issues in weekly status meetings.

Replace status update meetings with one-on-one meetings with the team members. Where would you find a detailed list and description of specific project assumptions associated with the project? Project charter ill nw iro B. Project configuration document D. Change management plan A number of teams are developing an enterprise system using the agile approach for product development. Which of the following is a major risk item for such a complex project being performed in an agile environment?

Number of interconnected dependencies between the features developed by different teams. Number and size of teams developing the larger features. Scope definition and freezing early during the planning phase. Emphasis on schedule control over risk management. Which of these is not a data analysis technique used during quantitative risk analysis? Tornado diagram B.

Decision tree C. RACI chart D. Influence diagrams Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Develop Team process? Organizational charts iro B. Co-location C. Acquisition D. A hierarchical structure of project resources organized by category and resource type, used in planning, managing and controlling project work, is: A.

Team structure B. Resource Pool C. Resource Breakdown Structure Project post-mortems help to mitigate future risks and are often a key component of, and ongoing precursor to, effective risk management. Which of the following is a terrible mistake when collecting lessons learned?

Documenting both the success stories and the failed attempts B. Focusing purely on the negatives and analyzing failures D. Conducting a comprehensive performance review The project is over budget. The project is right on budget.

The project is under budget. The project is ahead of schedule. Which of the following statements is correct? A collection of unrelated programs can constitute a portfolio. The scope of a portfolio is typically smaller than that of a program. A program is a group of unrelated projects. A program need not consist of projects. A project team member finds that the color scheme of the webpage he is designing appears too gaudy and decides to change it to a mellowed- down color scheme.

The customer approved the original color scheme and the color palette. The independent testing team flags this as a defect, and a heated discussion ensues between the team member and the testing team. The testing team is incorrect in flagging this as a defect.

This is an example of expert judgment when historical expertise is brought into the project. The testing team is correct. Even though the new color scheme is more pleasing than the old one, the appropriate change management process was not followed, and the work product is not as per design. The testing team is not right in flagging this.

The color scheme is a simple ill nw matter, and the new colors are definitely more pleasing than the old ones. The testing team is correct in flagging this. The team member should have sent a note along with the work product indicating he or she made the color scheme change. Which of the following items needs to be kept in mind when relying on risk identification checklists?

They are biased. They are not exhaustive. They are often inaccurate. They are easy to prepare. One of your team members reports a breakthrough in automating some of the testing activities. This may result in cost savings to the project and completion of the project one month ahead of schedule.

Which of the following actions would you take? This is confidential information within your project team and there is no need to share with the customer. The savings will be additional profits on the project. Communicate the current status and inform the customer you will incorporate some additional features to use up the savings in cost and time since it was budgeted.

Communicate the current status to the customer and indicate the potential changes to cost and schedule. Communicate the savings in cost and time to the customer. At the end of iro the project, notify your billing department that they need to prepare an invoice for 50 percent of the cost saved. A company manages SBG contracting bids for government tenders and all successful bids as a separate project.

The structure of the company is mainly projectized for a dedicated project team to manage each project. However, to realize economies of scale, there are some central departments that serve all projects.

Which of the following role is most likely to be working in a central department instead of directly working with a project team? Quality control inspector B. Construction manager C. Procurement administrator Which one is it? Approved change requests B. Work performance data C. Procurement documents D. Agreements Julia is currently recruiting her project team. She has carried out various interviews and has shortlisted potential candidates.

Now, according to the project communication management plan, she has to submit the shortlisted profiles to the project client customer for approval. Only then, can she formally hire the approved candidates for the project. The ill nw submission of the profiles to the client will go through which of the iro following processes?

Manage Stakeholder Engagement B. Acquire Resources C. Manage Communications D. Plan Resource Management Mark is in the middle of a software development project. If it is determined the project is no longer required, what would we call the cost incurred to date? Return on investment C. Breakeven cost D. Sunk cost Upon obtaining the project charter, the Project Manager of a project starts acquiring the project team immediately.

Is this correct? Acquisition of the project team is primarily an Initiating Process Group activity. The project manager needs to get the team together as soon as the project starts. It is the responsibility of the project sponsor to provide the team for execution. Acquisition of the project team is primarily an Executing Process iro Group activity.

B - The risk of delaying the lessons learned gathering exercise till the very end of the project is that the gathered information might not be complete because the project manager will not have the whole team available rather than those working on the closing phase. Further, this exercise might seem boring and bureaucratic effort. D - Capital planning is the process of budgeting resources for the future of an organization's long term plans.

Capital planning for a business would include budgeting for new and replacement machinery, research and development and the production of new products, new plants and other major capital projects. B - Charging higher than market price or delaying the payment will damage the relationship in the long-run.

Further formal contracts should always be in place as it is a good project management practice and it mitigates risk for both parties and avoids conflicts. The benefit of good supplier relationship is delivery of quality products at competitive prices. D - Change request is an output of the Monitor Communications process. The Monitor Communications process will produce the change request, the Perform Integrated Change Control process will get that approved, and then the Plan Communications Management process will make the necessary updates.

A - Emergent risks can be tackled through developing project resilience. This requires each project to have right level of budget and schedule contingencies, flexible project processes, empowered project team and frequent review of early warning signs.

B - Configuration item verification and audit is related to configuration management instead of change management. B - This is known as Variance Analysis. As project manager, you would then attempt to determine the cause of the variance relative to the scope baseline, and then decide whether corrective action is required.

A - In projects with adaptive life cycles, many of the project management processes are repeated in each iteration of the project except the Develop Project Charter process; which is typically performed only once at the start of the project. B - Crashing and fast tracking can compress the project's schedule when necessary, but might come at a higher cost and rework potential.

Funds availability is a constraint applicable to all projects. B - Control chart is a monitoring tool, while the rest of the choices are valid data gathering tools used during Control Quality process. B - Effective stakeholder management requires addressing potential concerns that have not yet become issues and anticipating future problems that may be raised by stakeholders. Such concerns need to be ill nw identified and discussed as soon as possible to assess associated project iro risks.

D - On-demand scheduling does not rely on a schedule that was developed previously for the development of the product or product increments, but rather pulls work from a backlog or intermediate queue of work to be done immediately as resources become available.

A - Crashing is a technique that can be applied to compress the project schedule without changing the project scope. Another option is fast tracking.

A - The schedule variance is the earned value minus the planned value. C - Time-boxed periods are durations during which the team works steadily toward completion of a goal.

Time-boxing helps to minimize scope creep as it forces the teams to process essential features first, then other features when time permits. B - All of the statements are correct. Stakeholder management is all about engaging stakeholders to meet their expectations and achieving stakeholder satisfaction.

This is one of the key project objectives required to be achieved in order to deliver a successful project. C - The project manager is not correct. A value greater than one represents a favorable iro condition for the project. The project manager has misinterpreted the situation. D - Analogous, parametric, and three-point estimating techniques are all accepted practices for determining the correct amount of time required for a portion of the project. The Critical Path Analysis techniques evaluate the whole project schedule.

A - Analogous estimation relies on comparing a project to previous projects that were similar in nature. A - A scatter diagram plots several occurrences of two variables one on each axis. Often a relationship between the two variables can then be determined, based on how closely they fit a geometric model. C - The first step should be to gather enough information so that the right decision and course of action can be determined.

The second step should be to issue a change request and follow its approval. The project manager must first review the change request handling procedure specific to the contract and that can be found in the procurement contract itself.

B - Before the project begins, the organization is commonly referred to as being in the current state. The desired result of the change derived by the project is described as the future state. A - The distinction between progressive elaboration and scope creep needs to be understood since the two terms are different. The changes to scope especially in an uncontrolled manner are called scope creep.

In contrast, progressive elaboration involves building on or elaborating the ill nw output of a previous phase. B - The project scope statement is the correct response. This document describes the project's deliverables in detail and the work that is required to create those deliverables.

It also forms the baseline for evaluating whether requests for changes are within or outside the project's boundaries. C - A milestone chart displays only the key deliverables and is simple and easy to understand.

C - Although David claims that he is supportive of all improvement initiatives, his behavior is not coherent with his claim. A - All four of these are important to consider when considering someone for a position within the project team: Role, authority, responsibility, and competency. C - Statistical sampling will provide sufficient inspection to ensure a high likelihood of a quality product while saving money for the project.

The prime objective of this exercise is to provide management with information about how effectively the sellers are achieving the contractual objectives and obligations. C - Student Syndrome — or procrastination — refers to the phenomena iro where people start to apply themselves only at the latest possible moment before the deadline. A - A good approach is to add a lessons-learned agenda item to the meeting. Do your best to prevent this part of the meeting from devolving into a complaint session.

B - The Project scope statement lists and describes the specific project assumptions associated with project scope and the potential impact of those assumptions if they prove to be false. A - In adaptive life cycles, when multiple teams are concurrently developing a large number of features, the interconnected dependencies between the features become a major risk item.

C - RACI chart is not a data analysis technique used during quantitative risk analysis. Rest of the choices are valid techniques for data analysis. B - Colocation is a tool and technique of the Develop Team process. The other choices are not valid responses. D - The Resource Breakdown Structure RBS is a hierarchical structure ill nw of team and physical resources related by category and resource type. C - Documenting both the success stories and the failed attempts are important as these can be very important inputs for future projects.

Only focusing on the negatives and analyzing failures will paint half of the picture. C - The CPI is calculated as the earned value divided by the actual cost. An index of greater than one indicates that you have spent less than you forecasted to this point. A - A portfolio refers to a collection of projects or programs that are grouped together to facilitate their effective management.

B - The testing team is correct in their findings. Even though the new color scheme might be a better choice than the old one, all changes need to follow the change management process and go through the appropriate change and approval process. B - While the risk identification checklist is a useful tool, it should be used in combination with the other tools, since it is impossible to cover all scenarios in one checklist.

C - A project manager should always communicate an accurate statement of the project status. There could be subsequent actions to determine how the savings could be best put to use, whether there could be any cost sharing, etc. D - In order to realize economies of scope, many organizations treat contract administration as an administrative function separate from the project organization. This is usually true if the performing organization is also the seller of the project to an external customer.

C - Manage Communications is the process of distributing project information in accordance to the communications management plan.

The interviews and shortlisting was carried out during the Acquire Resources and so will be the hiring once the approvals come in. D - Sunk cost is defined as a cost that has already been incurred and which cannot be recovered. D - No, the project team is not acquired immediately after signing of the project charter. Acquisition of a project team starts with resource management planning in the planning process group, followed by the acquisition of the resources in the execution phase.

The other choices are wrong, because the acquisition of the project team is mentioned in the wrong phase. What is a recommended method for controlling change within a project?

Have only the project manager able to initiate change. Have each change approved or rejected through a formal change control process. Allow each project member ultimate control of changes within their realm of the project without a review process. Freeze scope and allow absolutely no changes. A project manager calls you in as a consultant to provide input on developing the Project Charter.

Professional Consultant B. Expert Judgment C. Charter Consultant D. Expert Consultancy 3. Which process is concerned with providing forecasts to update current cost information? Monitor and Control Project Work B. Project Management Information System C. Close Project or Phase ill nw iro D.

Direct and Manage Project Work 4. Which of the following would not be considered an Enterprise Environmental Factor during the Develop Project Charter process? Scope Statement B. Organizational infrastructure C. Governmental standards D. Marketplace conditions 5.

The Close Project or Phase process is not performed when: A. Closing projects C. Closing project phases D. Reactivating projects 6. Which of these tools and techniques is common to all seven Project Integration Management processes? Meetings B. Data analysis C. Data gathering D. Expert Judgment 7. You are beginning a new project.

When should you use the Perform ill nw Integrated Change Control process? Throughout the entire project B. Only when closing out the project C. Only after the project is completely funded D. Only after the project scope is clearly defined 8. The project management team has determined that there are some changes to the scope of the project. According to the PMBOK, who is responsible for reviewing, evaluating, and approving documented changes to the project?

The Monitor and Control Project Work process monitors the project performance while the Direct and Manage Project Work process is concerned with performing the activities to accomplish project requirements.

There is no such thing as the Monitor and Control Project Work process. You are a consulting project manager and an investment bank has a contract with you to run a large information technology project that is expected to last 15 months. During the Direct and Manage Project Work process, you discover that several regulatory requirements were addressed in the project management plan but missed from the scope statement.

Failure to meet these requirements could result in legal action against the company. However, implementing the technology to comply with these regulations could exceed the budget and scope of the project and result in the cancellation of the project.

What should you do? Do not do anything as these requirements are not a part of the scope baseline. Request additional funds to implement these requirements. Submit a change request to incorporate the missed requirements in the project's scope. This is a classic example of scope creep and such requirements must be ignored. B - The change control procedure varies from project to project.

However, every change request must be processed through a formal change control process. B - Expert Judgment is judgment provided, based on expertise in an application area, a knowledge area, a discipline, an industry, etc. Expert Judgment is available from many sources including consultants. A - During the Monitor and Control Project Work process, work ill nw performance data is gathered and passed to the controlling processes.

The iro Monitor and Control Project Work process is responsible for keeping track of the all project's measures, including cost. A - The scope statement is clearly not an enterprise environmental factor, whereas the other three choices—governmental standards, organizational infrastructure, and marketplace conditions—are enterprise environmental factors.

D - The Close Project or Phase process allows the project manager to close or finish a specific phase of the project. A - Changes can occur in the project at any time. The Perform Integrated Change Control process is valuable for managing and tracking those changes. A - The Change Control Board is a group of formally constituted stakeholders responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying or rejecting changes to the project.

C - All regulatory requirements must be met. Doing nothing or considering this a scope creep are not valid options. You would have to request additional funds, but first you need to submit a change request ill nw for approval.

A change request can be submitted as a part of the Direct iro and Manage Project Work process. Superior service, inferior service, peak hour service, optimized service, and client service B. Simple, intellectual, procedural, optimal coding C. Sample, information, practice, organization, and control D. Suppliers, inputs, process, outputs, and customers 2. Julia is managing a water treatment plant construction project.

A new government has recently been sworn in. Julia is not sure how the new government and its future policies might affect her project. This is an example of: A. Variability risk B. Mitigated risk C. Ambiguity risk D. Opportunity risk 3. As a project manager, you are responsible for determining and delivering the required levels of both grade and quality.

Select which of the following statements you disagree with. Grade relates to the product's characteristics. Grade relates to the customer requirements. Quality relates to the customer requirements.

Quality and grade of a product must be carefully managed. Which of the following processes produces a work breakdown structure as an output? Define Scope C. Develop Project Management Plan D. How can a project manager ensure continued active support of the project supporters and at the same time minimize negative impacts from the negative stakeholders? By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand the communication management plan B.

By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand the stakeholder management strategy C. By ensuring that stakeholders are kept disengaged throughout the project lifecycle D. By ensuring that stakeholders clearly understand project goals, objectives, benefits, and risks 6. Most project management software packages use a method of constructing a project schedule network diagram known as: ill nw iro A. Waterfall Method B. Precedence Diagramming Method C.

Agile Method D. Just-in-time Method 7. The fundamental lesson from the Theory of Constraints by Goldratt is: A. Managers who choose to lead from the front are more successful. A system's throughput is limited by at least one constraint. Managers who delegate more are more successful. Martin is the project manager of a project that is in an early phase.

He needs to estimate costs but finds that he has a limited amount of detailed information about the project. Which of the following estimation techniques is least suited to his requirements? Top-down Estimating B. Bottom-up Estimating C. Budgetary Estimating 9. The performance reports produced during the Control Procurements process are then provided to which project management process for further processing?

Perform Integrated Change Control in the form of a change request D. Performance report is not an output of the Control Procurement process To develop a project stakeholder engagement plan, seek knowledge from groups or individuals with specialized training or subject matter insight into the relationships within the organization.

Consultation C. Expert judgment D. Sage opinion Three years back, your organization awarded a fixed price contract to a reputable local contractor to construct a new airport terminal in the city. The contractor is claiming that as a result of the recent national recession, the prices of raw materials have gone up and he cannot complete the rest of the project at the contract price. Yes, you cannot penalize the contactor for price escalations due to force majeure. Yes, unless there is no Economic Price Adjustment provision in the ill nw contract.

No, the price of the contract is fixed and cannot be changed. Which of the following is an agile prototyping technique showing sequence or navigation through a series of images or illustrations: A. Nominal group technique B.

Mind mapping C. Decision trees D. Which of the following statements is correct: A. Project lifecycles and product lifecycles are interdependent.

Project lifecycles are independent of product lifecycles. A product lifecycle is the same as a project lifecycle. The last lifecycle for a project is generally the product's retirement. Unless an enterprise-wide ERP is deployed in an organization, disparate IT systems perform specialized tasks in a project. Project management information system B. Accounts payable system ill nw iro C. Change control and tracking system D. Supply chain management system It is extremely important for a project manager to determine and map key stakeholder engagement levels early in the project.

Which of the following statements support this claim: A. Stakeholder engagement levels change during the lifecycle of the project B. Stakeholder engagement throughout the lifecycle of the project is critical to project success C. Leading stakeholders assume a supportive role during project execution D.

A management control point where scope, budget and schedule are integrated and compared to earned value for performance measurement is a: A.

Code of accounts B. Control packages C. Control account D. Account Plan Which of the following is an example of a chart, used on agile projects, that tracks the work that remains to be completed in the iteration backlog? Histogram iro B.



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